best of luck Cellular Organization part 3Explore Cellular Organization Part 3 with detailed insights into cell structure, functions, and key concepts of life sciences. Perfect for CSIR NET, GATE, and competitive exams preparation 1 / 501. A secretory protein with mutated signal peptide will most likely: A) Stay in cytosol B) Enter ER normally C) Go to mitochondria D) Be degraded by lysosome 2 / 502. Which step is energy-dependent in vesicle fusion? A) Cargo recognition B) Vesicle budding C) Vesicle uncoating & SNARE zippering D) Glycosylation 3 / 503. The protein “lamin” belongs to which cytoskeletal family? A) Actin B) Microtubule C) Intermediate filament D) Septin 4 / 504. Nuclear export requires: A) Exportin, Ran-GTP B) Importin, Ran-GDP C) Exportin, Ran-GDP D) KDEL receptor 5 / 505. GPI anchors attach proteins to: A) Cytosolic face of membrane B) Extracellular face of membrane C) ER lumen D) Nuclear pore 6 / 506. Which cytoskeletal filament is most resistant to detergents? A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Actin filaments 7 / 507. Which complex powers retrograde movement along microtubules? A) Kinesin B) Dynein C) Myosin II D) Arp2/3 8 / 508. Which organelle is semi-autonomous but NOT fully independent? A) Nucleus B) Lysosome C) Mitochondria D) Golgi 9 / 509. Lysosomal enzymes are active at: A) Neutral pH B) Alkaline pH C) Acidic pH (~5) D) All pH levels 10 / 5010. Nuclear pore complex size limit for passive diffusion is: A) <20 kDa B) <40 kDa C) <60 kDa D) <100 kDa 11 / 5011. The “cisternal maturation model” explains transport through: A) Endosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Peroxisomes D) Lysosomes 12 / 5012. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is FALSE? A) Have circular DNA B) Can undergo fission and fusion C) Synthesize all of their proteins D) Contain ribosomes 13 / 5013. Signal recognition particle (SRP) functions in: A) Translation initiation B) Co-translational targeting to ER C) Endocytosis D) Nucleocytoplasmic transport 14 / 5014. Actin stress fibers are connected to ECM through: A) Desmosomes B) Focal adhesions C) Tight junctions D) Hemidesmosomes 15 / 5015. Which protein facilitates retrograde transport of proteins from Golgi to ER? A) COPII B) COPI C) Clathrin D) Dynamin 16 / 5016. Proteins degraded by proteasome are usually tagged with: A) SUMO B) Ubiquitin C) Phosphate D) Glycosyl group 17 / 5017. Calnexin/calreticulin cycle in ER is mainly for: A) Protein glycosylation B) Protein folding quality control C) Vesicle formation D) Ribosome binding 18 / 5018. Peroxisome biogenesis defect causes: A) Tay-Sachs disease B) Zellweger syndrome C) Gaucher’s disease D) Sickle cell anemia 19 / 5019. Phagocytosis is mainly carried out by: A) Epithelial cells B) Fibroblasts C) Macrophages & neutrophils D) Neurons 20 / 5020. A mutation in tubulin that prevents GTP hydrolysis would result in: A) Microtubule destabilization B) Excessive microtubule stability C) Actin filament collapse D) Loss of nuclear lamina 21 / 5021. Which of the following pathways is default if no signal is present? A) Secretion outside the cell B) Retention in ER C) Lysosome targeting D) Nuclear import 22 / 5022. COPI vesicles mediate transport from: A) Golgi → ER B) ER → Golgi C) Plasma membrane → Endosome D) Golgi → Lysosome 23 / 5023. Lysosomal storage diseases often arise due to defect in: A) ER retention signal B) Mannose-6-phosphate tagging C) Rab protein signaling D) Nuclear localization signal 24 / 5024. SNARE complex functions in: A) Vesicle fusion B) Vesicle budding C) Vesicle transport D) Cargo glycosylation 25 / 5025. Rab proteins function in: A) Vesicle tethering B) Vesicle budding C) Cargo recognition D) Vesicle acidification 26 / 5026. Chloroplast DNA resembles: A) Linear nuclear DNA B) Circular bacterial DNA C) Linear mitochondrial DNA D) RNA genome 27 / 5027. Rubisco enzyme is found in: A) Thylakoid lumen B) Thylakoid membrane C) Stroma D) Cytosol 28 / 5028. Protein import into mitochondria requires: A) TOM & TIM complexes B) Sec61 channel C) Peroxins D) SRP 29 / 5029. F1 particle of ATP synthase is located in: A) Mitochondrial matrix B) Intermembrane space C) Inner membrane (facing matrix) D) Cytosol 30 / 5030. Cardiolipin is found mainly in: A) Outer mitochondrial membrane B) Inner mitochondrial membrane C) ER D) Plasma membrane 31 / 5031. Which nucleolus sub-compartment is site of rRNA transcription? A) Dense fibrillar component B) Fibrillar center C) Granular component D) Nuclear pore 32 / 5032. Nuclear matrix primarily contains: A) rRNA B) Lamin proteins C) Ribosomal proteins D) Mitochondrial proteins 33 / 5033. Which RNA polymerase synthesizes tRNA in eukaryotes? A) RNA Pol I B) RNA Pol II C) RNA Pol III D) Mitochondrial RNA Pol 34 / 5034. Ran-GTP is required for: A) Nuclear import completion inside nucleus B) Nuclear export in cytoplasm C) Protein folding in ER D) Ribosome assembly in cytoplasm 35 / 5035. NLS is usually rich in A) Hydrophobic residues B) Acidic residues C) Basic residues (Lys, Arg) D) Proline-rich motifs 36 / 5036. Which cytoskeletal element is most important for nuclear lamina? A) Microtubule B) Actin filament C) Intermediate filament D) Septin filament 37 / 5037. Actin filament barbed (+) end grows by: A) ATP-actin addition B) GDP-actin addition C) GTP-tubulin addition D) ADP-actin only 38 / 5038. Which drug stabilizes microtubules? A) Nocodazole B) Colchicine C) Taxol D) Vinblastine 39 / 5039. Microtubule plus-end binding protein is: A) EB1 B) γ-tubulin C) Pericentrin D) Actinin 40 / 5040. The nucleation of actin filaments is regulated by: A) Arp2/3 complex B) γ-tubulin ring complex C) MAPs D) Tau proteins 41 / 5041. Glycosylation starts in: A) ER lumen B) Golgi cisternae C) Lysosome D) Cytoplasm 42 / 5042. Brefeldin A primarily disrupts: A) Retrograde transport B) Anterograde transport (ER → Golgi) C) Clathrin uncoating D) ER protein glycosylation 43 / 5043. Mutation in dynamin protein would primarily block: A) Clathrin-mediated endocytosis B) COPI vesicle budding C) ER protein import D) Peroxisome protein import 44 / 5044. Which signal directs proteins to peroxisomes? A) KDEL B) SKL (at C-terminal) C) NLS D) M6P 45 / 5045. COPII vesicles mediate transport: A) Golgi → ER B) ER → Golgi C) Plasma membrane → Golgi D) ER → Lysosome 46 / 5046. Aquaporins allow movement of: A) Water only B) Water and ions C) Small hydrophobic molecules D) Water and CO₂ 47 / 5047. Which type of transport does Glucose uptake by GLUT4 follow? A) Simple diffusion B) Simple diffusion C) . Primary active transport D) Secondary active transport 48 / 5048. The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump exports: A) 3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in B) 2 Na⁺ out, 3 K⁺ in C) 3 Na⁺ in, 2 K⁺ out D) 2 Na⁺ out, 3 K⁺ in 49 / 5049. FRAP (Fluorescence Recovery After Photobleaching) is primarily used to study: A) Organelle pH B) Protein phosphorylation C) Lateral diffusion of membrane proteins D) Apoptosis 50 / 5050. Cholesterol in plasma membrane mainly functions to: A) Increase membrane fluidity at low temperature B) Decrease membrane fluidity at high temperature C) Both A & B D) Anchor membrane proteins Your score isThe average score is 56% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Share this: Click to share on X (Opens in new window) X More Click to share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Click to share on Telegram (Opens in new window) Telegram Click to share on WhatsApp (Opens in new window) WhatsApp Like this:Like Loading...Discover more from rashirozgar.comSubscribe to get the latest posts sent to your email. 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Cellular Organization Part 3